a question we should all be asking

hi folks - does anyone know if it is legal for the legislature and governor - under any conditions - to unilaterally alter the state constitution without the approval of the voters in California? well, apparently they did in 1913.

i received the following information today from a state archivist - if it's true - it likely means that there is NO legal basis whatsoever for the present system of worker's compensation.

"SB905 from 1913 (chapter 176) was not a constitutional amendment, and therefore was not voted on by the electorate. The Governor approved this act on June 2, 1913, and it went into effect immediately."

this of course, in 1913, altered the constitution without a vote of the people and among other things, took due process out of the system in return for setting us up with what i believe was referred to as a satisfactory system that was supposed to make everyone happy - injured workers and employers alike - and what did we the people and employers of California actually get - an epic con job that made California into the private playground of lawyers, doctors, law enforcement groups, un-elected judges and civil servants that were asleep at the wheel of a multiple billion dollar series of scandals that looted not only the industry but the state and the public's trust too.

 or, am i wrong here? are our constitutional rights and our state's constitution such lowly constructs as to be disregarded in California and turned over to those who serve themselves instead of you -

 ya, that must be it.